CHAPTER 3
1.
What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet
2.
What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax
3.
A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower
cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4.
What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5.
What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6.
What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP
7.
What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8.
Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9.
Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA
10.
As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11.
Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12.
Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP
13.
A small home
network has been installed to interconnect three computers together
for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network
type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14.
Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport
15.
ccna 1 chapter 3 answers 100%
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16.
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server
17.
What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18.
What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers
19.
What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20.
How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow
the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
CHAPTER 4
1.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using three client sessions.
The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.
The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037.
2.
After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728
3.
Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination
4.
Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data
between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence
number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
3431
3475
8.
Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9.
During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10.
With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11.
Which transport layer protocol provides
low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require
reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS
12.
What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13.
What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments
14.
What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port
15.
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16.
Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the
local media
17.
Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18.
Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network
19.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram,
which of the following statements describe the established session?
(Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.
20.
Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
21.
ccna 1 chapter 4 answers 100% 2011
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a
TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session
establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
CHAPTER 5
1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the
router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address
3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address
6.
Refer
to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the
default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in
the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that
the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility
15.
Refer
to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default
settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology
that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a
connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to
forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command,
the administrator would identify which address as the address to which
all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many
broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator
take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19.
Refer
to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What
two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is
shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a
packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is
used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the
192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a
packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
CHAPTER 6
1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32 **
2.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing
scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that
contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate
range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses.
Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining
networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
3.
Refer
to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork
of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been
subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the
technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new
network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the
router
interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the
workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which
configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties
to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28
5.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having
trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full
connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server
farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.
6. What subnet mask would a network administrator
assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up
to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
10. A router interface has been assigned an IP
address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which
subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
12. What two things will happen if a router receives
an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is
several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
13. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
14. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
15. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
16. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
17. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
18. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radi
20.
Refer
to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get
access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host
is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
21. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers **
network printers **
routers **
remote workstations
laptops
CHAPTER 7
1.
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
2.
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the
internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated
3.
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8
16
4.
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
6.
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is
added or moved within the network.
7.
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC – PC
source MAC – S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP – PC
source IP – S0/0 on RouterA
source IP – Fa0/1 of RouterB
8.
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function
9.
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10.
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11.
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12.
Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC
13.
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
14.
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15.
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16.
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17.
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected
18.
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame
19.
A network administrator has been asked
to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company
network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this
type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
CHAPTER 8
1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable
2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F
3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a
router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router
4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical
6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their
data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for
new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable
11. In LAN installations where potential electrical
hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of
media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic
14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
CHAPTER 9
1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion
in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to
transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer
3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5. When a collision occurs in a network using
CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff
period has expired?
* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer
8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
preamble and stop frame
network layer packet
physical addressing
FCS and SoF
10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a
mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose
IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the
destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest
router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access
13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14.
Refer
to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively
configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately
reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to
contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long
17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair
19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C
20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
21.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?
route PRINT
arp –a
arp –d
netstat
telnet
CHAPTER 10
1.
Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable
that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made
with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a
router’s console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
3.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet
capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the
way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what
network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the
network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point
4. A network administrator is required to use media
in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without
using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily
installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with
limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these
requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber
5.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45
7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each
subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask
of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096
8.
Refer
to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the
result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the
network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail
9.
Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54
10.
Refer
to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling
that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a
maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts
and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
**255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
12.
Refer
to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used
for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network
device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology
shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
switch
13.
Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5
14. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable
16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated
17.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the
192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that
shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host
requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the
network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses
per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable
20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface
21. What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater
23.
Refer
to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How
many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7
24. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
CHAPTER 11
1.
Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the
router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
**as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
3.
Refer
to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit
to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues
the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What
lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the
show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH
5.
Refer
to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing
the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from
HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow
the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
6. Users in the network are experiencing slow
response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command
could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or
output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory
7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode
8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9.
The
serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which
configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish
connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10.
Refer
to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command
executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11.
Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12. Immediately after a router completes its boot
sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers
configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following
commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version
13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check
14.
Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing,
configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the
graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination
unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two
reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial
router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
16.
The
connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested.
However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the
response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping
between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three
hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot
the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
Flash
NVRAM
18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
Option 1 Console
19. A network administrator needs to keep the user
ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI
connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be
chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH
DIAMBIL DARI
http://www.ccna4u.org/2011/06/ccna-1-chapter-3-v4-0-answers-100-updated-2011.html
